I dont understand why the 1500rev was multiplied by 2pi. Ifw=2pi*f shouldn\'t it

Question

I dont understand why the 1500rev was multiplied by 2pi. Ifw=2pi*f shouldn't it be (850rev/min)/60secs all multiplied by2pi. That would give w(angular velocity). To solve for timecouldn't i plug in 1500rev divided by 850rev/min = 1.76min and thenuse angular acceleration = angular velocity/time I dont understand why the 1500rev was multiplied by 2pi. Ifw=2pi*f shouldn't it be (850rev/min)/60secs all multiplied by2pi. That would give w(angular velocity). To solve for timecouldn't i plug in 1500rev divided by 850rev/min = 1.76min and thenuse angular acceleration = angular velocity/time

Explanation / Answer

1500rev(2rad/1rev)=9.425x103 rad, we need toconvert to rads if we're using equations and other variables (mostof the time). Just convert back to revs if you need to for a finalanswer

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