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1) What would happen in the event of hyperkalemia? a) action potentials would li

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Question

1) What would happen in the event of hyperkalemia?   a) action potentials would likely initiate spontaneously.   b) action potentials would be much weaker.   c) membrane potentials would spike much higher.    d) action potentials would travel much slower.   e) graded potentials would automatically trigger action potentials no matter how weak they are.

2) Excitability:   a) refers to a neuron’s ability to generate an action potential.    b) refers to the fact that muscle cells can only shorten.    c) is a measure of the passive force generated by a stretched out muscle.   d) all of the above.   e) none of the above.

3) The ion most responsible for generating an action potential is:   a) potassium.   b) sodium.    c) calcium.    d) chloride.    e) hydrogen.

4) Astrocytes:   a) myelinate 400 miles of axons in the brain.    b) are cholinergic.    c) are adrenergic.   

d) only produce graded potentials.    e) none of the above.

5) Ependymal cells:    a) have a limited ability to differentiate.   b) form cerebrospinal fluid.    c) are glial cells.    d) line ventricles.    e) all of the above.

6) The blood brain barrier:    a) is absent in the vomiting center of the medulla oblongata.    b) is present in the hypophyseal portal system.    c) blocks lipid soluble chemicals.   d) allows electrolytes to diffuse through.   e) none of the above.

7) Excitatory impulses:   a) hyperpolarize the neurilemma. b) depolarize the neurilemma.   c) make the threshold potential more negative.    d) are only generated on adrenergic fibers. e) all of the above.

8) Fast post-synaptic cell response:    a) involves-proteins.    b) involves a second messenger.   c) involves chemical-gated ion channels.   d) involves voltage-gated ion channels.    e) none of the above.

9) Which of the following triggers release of neurotransmitters from pre-synaptic vesicles?   a) Na+.  

b) K+      c) Ca2+    d) Cl-    e) H+

10) The suprachiasmatic nucleus:    a) is found in the hypothalamus.   b) contains melatonin receptors.    c) seems to be involved in sleep regulation.   d) all of the above.    e) none of the above.

11) Tonic receptors:   a) are fast to adapt.   b) stop sending signals even though the stimulus may continue.    c) rapidly desensitize to continued stimuli.   d) include baroceptors and proprioceptors.  

e) all of the above.

12) Your chromosomes:   a) are composed of DNA and protein.    b) are found in cell nuclei.    c) store genetic information.    d) are essentially, the assembly, operation and maintenance manual for a whole new you.    e) all of the above.

13 Phasic receptors:     a) are slow to adapt.    b) don’t fully stop sending signals even if the stimulus never stops.   c) slowly desensitize to continued stimuli.   d) include baroceptors and proprioceptors.  

e) all of the above.

14) Line coding:   a) is how the brain differentiates between different kinds of stimuli.   b) is a function of specific location with the brain.    c) requires that specific sensory pathways only go to certain locations within the brain.   d) all of the above.    e) none of the above.

15) Somatosensory input:   a) goes to the thalamus.    b) goes to the cerebellum.     c) goes to the medulla oblongata.   d) goes to the pons.    e) goes to the midbrain.

16) Parasympathetic responses:   a) are transmitted through certain cranial nerves.   b) travel through a two-neuron pathway.   c) may travel through sacral nerves.   d) rely on the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.    e) all of the above.

17) Which of the following is predicted by the Nernst Equation?    a) membrane potential for a single ion.    b) absolute refractory period.   c) latent phase.   d) relative refractory period.   e) tetanic force.

18) Myelin:    a) surrounds cell bodies.    b) surrounds dendrites.    c) is usually found in ganglia.    d) is usually found in gray matter.   e) none of the above.

19) The trigger zone:    a) responds to anything less than -55mV.   b) is located on the axon terminals.  

c) is located on the dendrites.    d) contains the neurotransmitter vesicles.   e) none of the above.

20) An inhibitory impulse:     a) creates a hyperpolarization.    b) may cancel out a graded potential.   c) reduces the likelihood of an action potential occurring.   d) tells the neuron to “be quiet”.   e) all of these

21) DNA replication: a) is an anabolic process.     b) occurs on ribosomes.     c) occurs

    continuously in both directions on both strands.     d) all of the above.     e) none of the above.

22) Okazaki fragments:    a) are formed on the lagging strand.   b) are produced discontinuously

     by DNA polymerase.    c) exist because DNA Polymerase can’t read in the 3’ to 5’ direction.

     d) all of the above.    e) none of the above.

23) RNA:   a) contains amino acids.   b) is double stranded.   c) acts like an enzyme in

     certain instances.    d) contains anticodons.    e) none of the above.

24) DNA: a) contains the 5-carbon sugar ribose.    b) never leaves the nucleus.

     c) acts like an enzyme on ribosomes.    d) contains uracil.   e) all of the above.

25) The genetic code:   a) contains a "4 letter alphabet".    b) consists of four different triplet

     Codons.    c) consists of polypeptides.   d) contains a "64 letter alphabet". e) none of these.

26) Ribosomes:   a) synthesize proteins.    b) synthesize RNA.    c) synthesize amino acids.

     d) all of the above.    e) none of the above.

27) Phosphate groups:    a) occur in RNA.    b) occur in DNA.    c) occur in ATP.   d) all of the above.

     e) none of the above.

28) The flow of information in biological systems is:    a) RNA to DNA to proteins.    b) DNA to

     RNA to proteins. c) proteins to DNA to RNA. d) RNA to proteins to DNA.    e) none of the

     above.

29) Nitrogenous bases:    a) include methionine.    b) occur in 3 different versions on RNA.  

     c) occur in 4 different versions on DNA.     d) join to one another via covalent.    e) all of the

     above.

30) Translation: a) requires a ribosome.     b) requires lots of free amino acids.   c) requires an

       RNA template.   d) all of the above.   e) none of the above.

31) According to base-pairing rules:    a) Guanine always binds with Cytosine.    b) Thymine

       binds with Guanine.    c) Adenine binds with Cytosine.    d) Uracil binds with Thymine on

       RNA.    e) none of the above.

32) A triplet codon:   a) codes for a single protein.   b) codes for a single nucleotide.

       c) codes for a single amino acid.   d) codes for a single polypeptide.   e) none of the above.

33) Nucleotides:    a) contain a sugar.     b) contain a phosphate group.    c) contain a

       nitrogenous base.     d) all of the above.    e) none of the above.

34) mRNA:   a) carries the genetic code out of the nucleus.   b) copies DNA during replication.

       c) contains an anticodon to read the tRNA.   d) is involved primarily in replication.   e) all of

       the above.

35) DNA Polymerase III:   a) synthesizes nucleic acids during transcription.   b) synthesizes

       nucleic acids during translation.    c) is found on the large ribosomal subunit.

       d) splice exons together.    e) none of the above.

36) Chromosomes:   a) contain DNA.   b) contain proteins.   c) are copied during DNA replication.

       d) are like separate chapters in your genetic user’s manual.   e) all of the above.

37) Sugar-phosphate linkages:    a) form the “backbone” of nucleic acids.    b) are joined via strong covalent bonds.     c) give DNA the ability to last for centuries in the right conditions.

d) all of the above.   e) none of the above.

38) Chargaff’s rules:    a) enable a complete DNA molecule to be synthesized even when only one strand is present.    b) dictate that Adenine only binds with Thymine.    c) states that Cytosine only binds with Guanine.    d) all of the above.   e) none of the above.

39) A promoter sequence:    a) forms the binding site for Helicase.     b) is like an “on/off switch” for a gene.    c) is where RNA polymerase attaches.    d) always codes for methionine.

40) The two strands of a DNA molecule:    a) are joined each other by hydrogen bonds.    b) have structural orientations that go in opposite directions to each other.    c) can act as templates to each other’s formation.    d) all of the above.   e) none of the above.

41) A gene that codes for a protein that is made of six amino acids:    a) would contain six nucleotides.     b) would consist of at least eighteen nucleotides.    c) would contain at least eighteen codons.    d) would consist of twelve base pairs.     e) all of the above.

42) Negative feedback loops:   a) prevent a cell from wasting material and energy on something

       that's not needed.    b) help prevent run-away processes.   c) are typified by most operons.

       d) can apply to enzyme pathways as well.   e) all of the above.

43) A repressor protein:    a) is coded for by regulatory genes.    b) turns a gene “off”.     c) binds to an operator sequence on the DNA.    d) physically blocks RNA polymerase from doing its job.    e) all of the above.

44) Transcription initiation factors:     a) bind to the stop codon.    b) cause the ribosomal subunits to disengage from each other.    c) attach an amino acid to tRNA.    d) are proteins.    e) all of the above.

45) Termination factors:     a) are proteins (heh, what isn’t)     b) attach to a start codon.    c) help bind the ribosomal subunits to the mRNA.    d) all of the above.   e) none of the above.

46) Nucleoside tri-phosphates:    a) provide the energy for DNA synthesis.    b) split into a nucleotide and a pyrophosphate.     c) include ATP.    d) all of the above.    e) none of the above.

47) The Lac Repressor protein:     a) is activated by lactose.    b) is activated by allolactose.    

c) controls access to the genes that produce enzymes that digest lactose.     d) all of the above.    e) none of the above.

48) Epigenetics:     a) is the study of how environmental factors can affect genes.    b) got its start with the Dutch twin studies.    c) shows that children of malnourished parents can have children who are prone to obesity.    d) somewhat contradicts the central dogma.    e) all of the above.

49) An extremely strong stimulus such as a loud noise or heavy pressure on a fingertip:   a) will generate a single very large action potential.   b) will generate a very small graded potential.   c) will generate a rapid series of action potentials.    d) will not generate an action potential.   e) none of the above.

50) The absolute refractory period:    a) lasts about 200 mSec.    b) is due to a lack of Na and K ions.    c) is due to the K+ Channel gates resetting.   d) all of the above.    e) none of the above.

Match the following. Each choice is used only once.

51) Helicase                                                        a) Keeps DNA from sticking back togetner.

52) Topoisomerase                                         b) Keeps strands from getting all tangled up.

53) Single strand binding proteins             c) Stitches Okazaki fragments together.

54) DNA Polymerase III                                  d) Reads old nucleotides to add new ones.

55) DNA ligase                                                   e) Separates the DNA strands.

56) Intracellular Ca2+     a) 0.0001mM

57) Intracellular K+          b) 150 mM

58) Extracellular K+         c) 1.0 mM

59) Extracellular Na+      d) 5 mM

60) Extracellular Ca2+     e) 135-145 mM

61) Alpha receptors                        a) Norepinephrine only.

62) B1 receptors                              b) Both Epinephrine and norepinephrine.

63) B2 receptors                              c) Epinephrine only.

64) Nicotinic receptors                  d) secreted by preganglionic fibers.

65) Muscarinic receptors              e) secreted by post ganglionic fibers.

For the following true/false items, mark “A” for true and “B” for false.

66) Proprioception is the awareness of lateral acceleration.

67) Nociceptors are small but elaborate multicellular structures.

68) Equilibrium is considered to be a special sense.

69) Lateral inhibition can enhance visual acuity.

70) Lateral inhibition occurs where a neuron sensitizes adjacent neurons to stimuli.

71) A Neuron has enough potassium ions to generate about ten action potentials if the Na/K pumps were to stop working.

72) Cerebrospinal fluid completely recirculates three times a day..

73) Viscerosensory input is sent directly to the thalamus.

74) Autonomic pathways only involve one neuron.

75) Ganglia are typically heavily myelinated.

Match the effect with the correct division of the ANS: write “S” for sympathetic, “P” for parasympathetic

_______ Dilates pupil

_______ Mucus secretion in saliva

_______ Bronchoconstriction

_______ Vasodilation in smooth muscle

_______ Increases renin secretion

_______ Reduces urine production

_______ Constricts Pupil

_______ Watery saliva

_______ Decrease in pancreatic secretion

_______ Stimulation of Bladder muscle contraction

_______ Induces erection in spongy tissue

_______ Bronchodilation

_______ Reduction in heart rate

_______ Increase in bile secretion by liver

_______ Stimulates uterine contractions.

_______ induces ejaculation

_______ reduces motility of the GI tract

_______ vasodilation of skeletal muscle

_______ induces uterine layers to enlarge and secrete material

_______ Increases contractility of heart

Discuss synergisism, antagonism, agonism and permissiveness in hormone and neurotransmitter function. Give one example of each type of mechanism.

Explanation / Answer

1.action potential could travel much slower because in hyperkalemia condition more influx of potassium would take place and due to more hyperpolarization more time would require to generate AP again.

2.excitability refers to a neuron ability to generate an AP.

3.To generate AP at post synaptic membrane voltage gated calcium are responsible.

4 .Astrocyte are cholinergic.

5.(e)all of the above.

6.

7.(b) depolarize the membrane

8.involve voltage gated ion channel

9.Calcium

10.(d) all of the above

11.(C)

12.(e) all of the above

13.(d)

14.C

15.a

16.c

17.a.

18.d

19.a

20.a

21.c

22.a

23.d

24.b

25.b

26.a

27.d

28.b

29.c

30.d

31.a

32.c

33.d

34.a

35.c

36.a

37.d

38.d

39.c

40.d

41.c

42.a

43.d

44.e

47.b

48.c

49.a

50.d

51.e

52.a

53.b

54.d

55.c

56.a.

57.b

58.d

59.e

60.c