According to Kant, every person deserves equal moral consideration. On the surfa

Question

According to Kant, every person deserves equal moral consideration. On the surface this seems to mesh with widely-shared sensibilities about the responsibilities each citizen has in civic life.

Perhaps counter-intuitively, however, Kant's notion of impartiality also holds that right action does not alter depending on the identity of those who stand to be harmed or helped in a situation; you cannot justifiably fail to meet your obligations to a stranger, for example, to produce some supererogatory benefit for a loved one.

Does this, the impartiality requirement of the Categorical Imperative, mesh with how you believe you ought to behave toward your family members and loved ones? Does the impartiality requirement affect your willingness to apply Kant’s theory in your own life? Explain your response.

If you find Kant's notion of impartiality objectionable, how might Kant respond to your specific objection? According to Kant, every person deserves equal moral consideration. On the surface this seems to mesh with widely-shared sensibilities about the responsibilities each citizen has in civic life.

Perhaps counter-intuitively, however, Kant's notion of impartiality also holds that right action does not alter depending on the identity of those who stand to be harmed or helped in a situation; you cannot justifiably fail to meet your obligations to a stranger, for example, to produce some supererogatory benefit for a loved one.

Does this, the impartiality requirement of the Categorical Imperative, mesh with how you believe you ought to behave toward your family members and loved ones? Does the impartiality requirement affect your willingness to apply Kant’s theory in your own life? Explain your response.

If you find Kant's notion of impartiality objectionable, how might Kant respond to your specific objection? According to Kant, every person deserves equal moral consideration. On the surface this seems to mesh with widely-shared sensibilities about the responsibilities each citizen has in civic life.

Perhaps counter-intuitively, however, Kant's notion of impartiality also holds that right action does not alter depending on the identity of those who stand to be harmed or helped in a situation; you cannot justifiably fail to meet your obligations to a stranger, for example, to produce some supererogatory benefit for a loved one.

Does this, the impartiality requirement of the Categorical Imperative, mesh with how you believe you ought to behave toward your family members and loved ones? Does the impartiality requirement affect your willingness to apply Kant’s theory in your own life? Explain your response.

If you find Kant's notion of impartiality objectionable, how might Kant respond to your specific objection?

Explanation / Answer

Kant proposed the theory of Categorical Imperative proposing universal law and acts. He divided his theory into three parts, content of morality what is good and bad/universal law, actions should be universal and Distinction between duties and rationalization.

Kant tries to establish a Universal law and act through his theory of Categorical Imperative. He advocates one point that our actions should be universal and it shouldn't different from person to person. For example, in a normal life, our actions will be affectionate towards our family members even if they are wrong and the same will be different if a stranger does anything wrong mistakenly. This moral inequality, according to Kant is not just right.

It would be impossible to act universally for anyone in this world as the adage goes, 'Blood is thicker than the water'. Everyone will be more attached to their kith and kin and they will never act universally. Even if our family members are wrong, we will fight for them and win them back but it never occurs with new people.

So moral equality in reality will be a very hard theory to practice.

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