This post was originally made as part of the code of ethics discussion. I think

Question

This post was originally made as part of the code of ethics discussion. I think it raises good questions regarding ownership of the software, so I've reposted it here for discussion. My opinion is that the perceived ownership of the software dictates if the action was ethical. What do you think. source: http://interestingengineering.com/programmer-automates-job-6-years-boss-fires-finds/ This person worked at a well-known tech company in Bay Area for software testing quality assurance job. What he did was, 8 months of programming to automate his job, and then do whatever he wanted to do for 6 years. He claims that nobody really cared. Then finally he got fired. The article says nothing about the quality of the job done by the automated program, but I assume the program was doing its job without fail since he wasn't fired for 6 years. Do you think what he did was "professionally unethical" even though the job was being done wihout problem? (He didn't do the job, but his program did. But either way, the job was being done.) If it was "professionally unethical", then was it also "unethical" in genral? or Was it "non-professionally ethical"?

Explanation / Answer

IT is professionally unethical as he did something and disclosed it to his employers.Although the work is being done without any problem the employers of the organization are not aware that it was being performed by a program.As he didnt say anything about his program it is professionally unetchical. But it is not generally unethical as the work is being done without any problems.This is my point of view.

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