Prove or disprove that every function from N into itself is computable? Please s
ID: 1940834 • Letter: P
Question
Prove or disprove that every function from N into itself is computable?Please show all your work. Give me a STEP BY STEP answer, explaining how you came about your answer.
Explanation / Answer
For every computable function f : N ? N, there exists a computable function g : N ? N such that for every n we have f(n) = g(n). Proof: Assume, for the sake of arriving at a contradiction, that for some computable function f, for every computable function g, there exists an n such that f(n) > g(n). For each computable function g, let n(g) be the smallest n such that f(n) > g(n). Let n0 be the maximum of n(g) over all computable functions g, and assume this maximum is achieved for g0, that is, n(g0) = n0. De?ne a function g1 that is equal to g0 for all values except for n0, and for n0 we have g1(n0) = f(n0). This function g1 is computable because 1) g0 is computable and 2) g1 differs from g0 in only one point. By de?nition, n(g1) = n(g0) + 1, and this contradicts the fact that n(g) was maximized at g0.
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