Q1. A serial transmission involves the transmission of information to employees
ID: 462037 • Letter: Q
Question
Q1. A serial transmission involves the transmission of information to employees utilizing e-mail.
a. true
b. false
Q2. The increasing need for information in today's society is a communication microbarrier.
a. true
b. false
Q3. Influencing is often referred to as the fundamental management skill.
a. true
b. false
Q4. Controlling is the process of guiding the activities of organizational members in appropriate directions.
a. true
b. false
Q5. The source's view of the destination of the communication is a communication microbarrier.
a. true
b. false
Q6. Organizational communication that follows the line of the organization chart is called informal organizational communication.
a. true
b. false
Q7. Gestures, vocal tones, and facial expressions are forms of nonverbal communication.
a. true
b. false
Q8. Which of the following would be considered a nonverbal form of communication?
a. a written performance appraisal
b. the tone of the voice
c. a teleconference
d. an e-mail
e. a written policy
Q9. Very little actual communication occurs on the organizational grapevine.
a. true
b. false
Q10. Feedback is the destination's verbal reaction to a message in interpersonal communications.
a. true
b. false
Q11. The gossip grapevine tends to distort messages more than any other grapevine pattern.
a. true
b. false
Q12. Verbal communication is the sharing of information without using words to encode thoughts.
a. true
b. false
Q13. Successful communication refers to an interpersonal communication situation in which the information the source intends to share with the destination, and the meaning the destination derives from the transmitted message are the same.
a. true
b. false
Q14. Under which leadership theory does the leader inspire organizational success by profoundly affecting followers' beliefs in what an organization should be, as well as their values, such as justice and integrity?
a. transformational leadership
b. path-goal leadership
c. entrepreneurial leadership
d. superleadership
e. situational leadership
Q15. Transformational leaders raise followers' levels of awareness of organizational issues and their consequences.
a. true
b. false
Q16. Boss-centered leadership behaviors are more autocratic, and subordinate-centered leader behaviors are more democratic.
a. true
b. false
Q17. If a manager asks for information from subordinates but makes the decision alone, the manager is most likely using which of the following decision styles?
a. CII
b. AI
c. CI
d. GI
e. AII
Q18. In servant leadership, leaders view their primary role as helping their followers.
a. true
b. false
Q19. Contemporary management writers and practitioners generally agree leadership ability cannot be explained by an individual's traits or inherited characteristics.
a. true
b. false
Q20. The situational approach was the earliest of theories about what makes leaders effective.
a. true
b. false
Q21. According to the contingency theory of leadership, ________ is the degree to which the goals and other situational factors are outlined clearly.
a. Transformational leadership
b. Positive power
c. Leader-member relations
d. Task structure
Q22. A considerate leader would be more effective than a structuring leader when the leader-member relations are good, the task structure is weak, and the leader position power is weak.
a. true
b. false
Q23. The Vroom-Yetton-Jago Model of leadership provides that subordinates should accept and be committed to organizational decisions that are made.
a. true
b. false
Q24. Leaders in modern organizations have been confronting many situations rarely encountered by organizational leaders of the past.
a. true
b. false
Q25. Which of the following is a situational leadership theory?
a. the Michigan Studies
b. path-goal theory
c. the Ohio State studies
d. superleadership
e. the trait approach
Q26. Leader flexibility is the ability of the leaders to change leadership styles.
a. true
b. false
Q27. The only real difference between Maslow and Alderfer is that Maslow identified three levels of needs and Alderfer identified five.
a. true
b. false
Q28. According to Herzberg, ________ influence the degree of job satisfaction.
a. Theory X factors
b. Hygiene factors
c. Maintenance factors
d. Motivating factors
Q29. Activities based on Theory Y assumptions are more apt to motivate organization members than are activities based on Theory X assumptions.
a. true
b. false
Q30. Which of the following motivation theories focuses on the personal and natural development of people to explain human needs?
a. Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory
b. McClelland's Acquired Needs Theory
c. Alderfer's ERG Theory
d. Argyris' Maturity-Immaturity Continuum
e. The Vroom Expectancy Theory
Q31. According to equity theory, everyone who feels treated unfairly at work will seek other employment.
a. true
b. false
Q32. The Needs-Goals Theory of Motivation is more complex than the Vroom Expectancy Theory.
a. true
b. false
Q33. ________ involves negative assumptions about people that McGregor believes managers often use as a basis for dealing with their subordinates.
a. Theory Z
b. Theory Y
c. Theory X
d. Job Design
Q34. Alderfer's three needs are power, existence, and growth needs.
a. true
b. false
Q35. According to the Needs-Goal Theory of Motivation, motivation begins with an individual feeling a need.
a. true
b. false
Q36. Managers should look upon Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs more as a subjective statement rather than an objective statement of human needs.
a. true
b. false
Q37. According to the Porter-Lawler Theory of Motivation, the extent to which an individual effectively accomplishes a task is determined primarily by the individual's perception of what is required to perform the task and the individual's ability to perform the task.
a. true
b. false
Q38. Individuals with a high need for affiliation generally make excellent managers.
a. true
b. false
Q39. A task group is a formal group outlined in the chain of command on an organization chart.
a. true
b. false
Q40. Self-managed work teams developed in the ________.
a. 1990s
b. 1960s
c. 1980s
d. 1970s
Q41. A committee is a task group charged with performing some type of specific activity.
a. true
b. false
Q42. Which stage of team development is characterized by conflict and disagreement as team members try to clarify their individual roles and challenge the way the team functions?
a. performing
b. forming
c. adjourning
d. norming
e. storming
Q43. Which of the following is an analytical tool that can be used to determine what informal groups exists in an organization and who the members of those groups are?
a. sociogram
b. social diagram
c. reciprocity diagram
d. PERT
e. sociometry
Q44. Once the problem that brought the problem-solving team together has been addressed, the team is disbanded.
a. true
b. false
Q45. The stages of team development are exactly the same as the stages of group development.
a. true
b. false
Q46. During the ________ stage of team development, there is an agreement among team members on role, rules and acceptable behavior.
a. forming
b. storming
c. adjourning
d. norming
Q47. The first stage in team development is 'storming.'
a. true
b. false
Q48. Which of the following would be an example of a task group?
a. a group meeting to consider the feasibility of a new product
b. a self-managed work group
c. a quarterly planning group
d. an informal group
e. a group meeting to prepare the monthly financial reports
Q49. Which of the following is a procedural step that could be taken to increase the probability a committee will be successful?
a. stimulating further thought by members
b. bringing all members into active participation
c. rephrasing ideas already expressed
d. keeping the goals of the group flexible
e. specifying the authority of the committee
Q50. Most executives think committees are a waste of time.
a. true
b. false
Explanation / Answer
Q1: False: The given statement is false since in serial communication the information gets passed from one person to another. Whereas in mail communication mass and buld mails can be sent and when mails are forwarded it should not be edited as it will lead to legal actions.
Q2: True
Q3: True: Influencing is often referred to as the fundamental management skill.
Q4: False: Influencing is the process of guiding the activities of organizational members in appropriate directions.
Q5: False
Q6: False: Organizational communication that ignores the line of the organization chart is called informal organizational communication.
Q7: True
Q8: The correct answer is b. the tone of the voice; all other options constitute to verbal form of communication.
Q9: False: Grapevine constitutes to the rumours in an organization and they take place at a high scale especially before any important announcement by the organization.
Q10. False: Feedback refers to either verbal or non-verbal reaction to a message in interpersonal communications.
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