I could not understand this problem Is it possible to clarify? What is the meani

Question

I could not understand this problem Is it possible to clarify?

What is the meaning of "procedure with a span of 6 ft and the 6 in' and 'side is positioned vertically'

Sample Problem 10.3 A third-point bending test was performed on a 4 × 6 wood lumber according to ASTM D198 procedure with a span of 6 ft and the 6 in. side is positioned vertically. If the maxi- mum load on both loading bearings was 5,108 lb, calculate the modulus of rupture. Solution The actual cross section dimensions are 3.5 in. × 5.5 in. Reaction at each support at failure = 5,100 = 2,554 lb 2,554 lb 2 Bending moment at the center third of span at 6×12 3 failure = 2.554 × 61,296 lb-in. c = 1 /2 of the specimen height 3.5 × 5.53 12.48.526 in.4 Mc 61,296 × 2.75 Modulus of rupte48.526 = 3,473.7 psi

Explanation / Answer

1. The 6 in side is positioned vertically means that the given cross-section of 4 X 6 is placed vertically means the width of cross-section will be 4 unit (in) along X-axis and depth (Height) is 6 unit (in) along Y-axis if we consider XY plane (according to cartesian system) and Z-axis is normal to plane in outer direction of plane.

2. Span is the length of the cross-section along the Z-axis which is 6 ft.

3. And 0.6 inches reduction (3.5 X 5.5) is for safety precaution or side distance (.3 in each direction).

I hope you will understand. And if it is not cleared please reply, I will clarify it more. And if you understand please rate it as like. Thank You.

Related Questions

Navigate

• Browse (All)
• Browse I
• Subjects

---

---

Integrity-first tutoring: explanations and feedback only — we do not complete graded work. Learn more.