A 20-year old sexually-active female comes into the clinic with painful lesions

Question

A 20-year old sexually-active female comes into the clinic with painful lesions on her labia, in her v and on her cervix. She also has swollen lymph nodes within her groin. A history establishes that the woman has not experienced an outbreak like this before. The doctor takes a sample of a lesion and sends it off to the lab for diagnosis using an immunological test and a Tzanck smear. When the results come back, the doctor immediately prescribes acyclovir. He also recommends that the woman contact any sexual partners from the last month and send them to the clinic. What did the woman have and what is the most likely causative agent?

Explanation / Answer

The likely diagnosis of the women is herpes. Herpes is caused by the HSV-I or HSV-II (herpes simplex virus infection) and the genital herpes is transmitted through the sexual contact. The carrier may not exhibit the symptoms as the virus stays in dormant state. The viral outbreak is characterized by the lesions in the genital region. After infection, the virus attacks the nervous tissue by penetrating through the skin and cause intermittent lesions with spontaneous recovery and remission. The frequency of remission may increase with time.

Having genital herpes increases the chances of HIV infection due to the exposure of immune cells in the regions of ulcers during its outbreak, the HIV can easily attack these immune cells.

Wearing condoms can prevent the transmission of the virus if it is perfectly maintained, but wearing condoms also always cannot prevent the disease transmission. The patients or the unaffected people are advised to practice safe sex with the single partner.

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